- 19 May 2014 16:38
#14408896
The short answer is that Hitler as a German nationalist did not hold the Western nations in the same contempt as he did the Slavic ones, and that Hitler had more limited war aims than is sometimes assumed. Like many Germans, he did not think Slavs were really capable of good self-government, citing the decadent Polish Commonwealth, the Tsarist Empire and, worst of all, Bolshevik Russia (although admittedly the leadership of that regime was in very large part drawn from the empire's minorities), so they may as well be under good German rule. Even if Hitler was wary of "Judeo-financialist" domination in Britain and America, he also saw much to admire in these kindred Anglo-Saxon nations, whether it was the British Empire (British India was his model for German supremacism over the Slavs) or Henry Ford (champion of the anti-Semitic productive-as-against-speculative capitalism he espoused). Hitler did not respect decadent France however, seemingly irreparably ruined by liberalism and "mongrelization," although perhaps he imagined it would have been better to let that country rebuild itself under a conservative regime, without prejudging its future.
Germany's "France policy" was above all dominated by immediate wartime concerns so it's hard to say what Hitler would have done with the country had he won the war. Some plans involved annexing a large swathe of the country beyond Alsace-Lorraine for German colonization. But there was also the possibility of more or less rapidly restoring a largely independent French State (this was the early Vichy Regime's hope, based on a swift British capitulation that did not occur), the better to shore up Fortress Europe's Western flank.
A stubborn porcupine: heredity & nationhood. Meditate, brother!
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