Considering the methodical and systematic manner in which the purges of the party centre were conducted, yes I would say he had a bit more finesse.
You are using the purges as an example in this case? I'm guessing you read different history books than I do. The purges were like trying to kill a fly with a sledge hammer. Take, for example, the execution quotas.
Really reaching for straws arn't we. How did you even draw this conclusion from the passage you quoted?
Just trying to make sense of your argument. You claimed that Nazism was a 'cult of death'. I argued that Nazism and Communism both killed mainly secretly (no 'cult of death'), and in the case of public killings, Communism had the lead (purges and whatnot). You indicated that I somehow proved your point. How?
Why has it taken you so long to notice and respond to this? It smells of yet another misdirection.
Huh? You are not making much sense. I responded when you mentioned the 'cult of death' thing a few posts back.
When in doubt, people like you always insult my credentials. But here's the punchline, I have an honours in history, I studied Nazi Germany in university.
And a credible university taught the 'cult of death' line to you?
The public rhetoric of the purges doesn't not convey that the purges were somehow desirable.
So the USSR didn't have public rhetoric against 'counter-revolutionaries', enemies of the people and other undesirable elements in society?
Everything in Nazi world thought boils down to life or death struggles. The struggle to preserve civilisations.
And the Communist world view didn't boil down to class struggle and world revolution? That the communist system in the USSR had to be preserved? That the capitalist world wasn't out to get them?
Near constant public calls for the physical destruction of enemies.
And the destruction of the capitalist system was never called for in the USSR? And in case you try to nitpick, the Nazis rarely called publicly for the destruction of individuals. They fostered the the idea of the 'world Jewry' as an organization, which is about as ambiguous and all-encompassing as the soviet idea of 'capitalism' was.
As early an Mein Kampf Hitler was promoting the idea of gassing Jews.
But you are claiming that Nazism was a 'cult of death'. Hitler was genocidal, but you are calling the whole movement as a 'cult of death'. This is wholly wrong and down right sensationalist. Nazism existed before Hitler and had deeper roots than the NSDAP. It was an idiotic mystics society that had circle-jerk meetings over their presumed racial superiority. And this is essentially the way it remained until the end of the war. Genocide was never a part of it and in fact the killings were carried out with as much secrecy as possible.
The glorification of war, particularly the front line soldier. The glorification of fallen comrades. The glorification of street fighting.
The glorification of world revolution. The glorification of the fallen in the civil war. Etc. Etc. You are really grasping at straws with all this.
Actually, no it isn't. Legally, there is for example a differentiation between manslaughter and murder one. I'm guessing you live in a country whose legal system makes such distinctions?
So are you arguing that all the killings in the USSR were manslaughter?
I think the overwhelming pointlessness and primitive savagery or racist thinking would probably make me much sadder.
Yes. Dying in a gulag in Siberia has such a refined quality to it.
The deportation of nationalities wasn't really anything like the Armenian genocide
You are quite intent on exonerating Stalin's regime, aren't you? The whole point of the mass deportations was to wipe out the national minorities. Either as revenge (like in the case of the Chechens) or simply out of political reasons (russification). Beyond a few details, the deportations were very similar to what the Armenians were subjected to. The methods differed, but the end result was designed to be the same.
Now all of this of course depends on your definition of genocide. But even if you insist on the killing being very straightforward (like shooting or gassing), the mass deportations and the Holodomor still qualify as genocides. For example by UN standards (which Stalin actually insisted on being changed in 1948).
You should be ashamed of your ignorance of these events you try to exploit for political capital.
Now how is insulting who? And how am I trying to exploit this for political capital? I have very little interest in this issue. I am just sick of apologists on both the nazi and communist side.
Second, I didn't say they were innocent, in fact I have repeatedly called them criminal.
But that is the thing. You call the Holodomor 'criminal negligence', correct? This paints the picture of the events as a series of bad policy decisions, which is absolutely misleading. Everything points to Stalin acting with absolutely no regard for human life and knowledge of the consequences of his actions. He only acted to save his precious grain production.
Stalin's willingness to cause some harm to the people to achieve his ends
Doesn't this kind of defeat your 'criminal negligence' argument?
Maybe this is actually evidence that the Soviets learnt from a mistake?
There is that 'maybe' you have chastised me about. Maybe the 1932-33 genocide/democide had met its goal and Stalin didn't need to repeat it?
At least your rubbery use of language is starting to clear up.
It's not rubbery, since Ukraine was demographically quite diverse. So calling it genocide is technically incorrect and the democide term is more accurate. I use the term genocide, since it is more often used in reference to the Holodomr. As you can note, I have not argued that is was a racial issue, but a political one. Nazis killed based on race, communists killed based on class.
Your chronology is wrong. The deportations of kulaks was undertaking during collectivisation, and related to resistance to it.
Wrong. Forced collectivization was started in 1929. This is also when the dekulakization started. In fact, the collectivization lead to a famine in 1930-31, which shows that Stalin was quite aware of the effects of forced collectivization.
The figure of 'a few million' is also impressive since less that two million were deported in 1929. But then, all murder is the same to you... so why are you arguing the scale?
Well I am not quite sure about the figure, which I quite clearly mentioned. And please stop this childish 'all murder is the same to you' whining. Of course it is and should be to any sane man. Most people don't say "thank God this isn't racially motivated" when they witness a politically motivated execution.
In fact the relative 'success' of collectivisation went some way to distorting reality in the minds of government officals.
One could say that they were 'dizzy with success'?
The results of forced collectivization were clear. Famine, death, etc. Stalin et al still chose to restart the process.
Once again, did not say. It is pretty much impossible to debate with you, since you seem to have simply made up your own fantasy version of my arguments.
I didn't claim you said. I was pointing out the fallacy of your naive assumption that Stalin wasn't fully aware of the consequences of his actions.
For christ's sake. How do you think the famine ended then? Why were you even arguing about the release of aid (as part of your terror famine theory) in the first place if it didn't achieve anything anyhow?
It is two different things to give aid when it is needed and giving it later. Stalin opted for the latter, which is what I have been trying to point to.
I'm done. You can keep posting, since you didn't really read what I had to say anyway. You can battle your straw men for all eternity.
No need to get angry, just because someone doesn't buy your 'criminal negligence' line.