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Classical liberalism. The individual before the state, non-interventionist, free-market based society.
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By Comrade Ogilvy
#583300
If only actions that violate rights to person and property are illegal, then which should be dealt with in the scope of civil or criminal law?

In some jurisdictions, assualt is both a tort and a crime. Should that be the case in a libertarian society?
By smashthestate
#583318
confooocious wrote:In some jurisdictions, assualt is both a tort and a crime.

And that's how it should be in most cases in my conception of the court system under a libertarian-style government and justice system. Wherever possible, all wrongs should be tried in both civil and criminal courts, however the separation of the two wouldn't be present as in today's justice system. They would be combined, and punitive damages as well as punishment for the crime would be decided in one court.

Of course this determination is much simpler on a case-by-case basis. I still believe that some wrongs should not be tried as both civil and criminal, and some wrongs should only be tried as criminal, and some only as civil.

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