- 05 Mar 2005 17:50
#583300
If only actions that violate rights to person and property are illegal, then which should be dealt with in the scope of civil or criminal law?
In some jurisdictions, assualt is both a tort and a crime. Should that be the case in a libertarian society?
In some jurisdictions, assualt is both a tort and a crime. Should that be the case in a libertarian society?
Political forum vanguard.