[Proctor]

I've been thinking. According to the Technocrats (you), the Great Depression was caused by the end of scarcity and the creation of abundance. Is this contradictory to what the economists say are it's causes?

Regardless of that, if abundance only came about in the United States, why did the crash affect the entire world (with the possible exception of the Soviet Union)?

And, when the United States applied their 'band-aids' to cover up their problems, would this also prevent the problems appearing when abundance is achieved in other areas, thanks to world trade? Or would there be a similiar Great Depression when that occured?